Timeline for How could an infinitesimal transfer of heat even be possible if we already have equilibrium?
Current License: CC BY-SA 4.0
9 events
| when toggle format | what | by | license | comment | |
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| 12 hours ago | comment | added | Poutnik | It seems that for Callen, infinity is not big enough. Their postulate equilibrium exists is contradicting the statement that systems differing by dT are not in equilibrium | |
| 12 hours ago | comment | added | Anna | In Callen's framework equilibria do exist by one of the postulates. I am asking my questions with regards to his book and his postulates, not reality. I apologize if this was not clear in my original question. | |
| 12 hours ago | comment | added | Poutnik | Well, equilibrium does not exist. Not even theoretically. Just its theoretical and practical approximation. | |
| 12 hours ago | comment | added | Anna | But Callen derives, on page. 43, that for two systems in thermal equilibrium, it must be the case that $T^{(1)}=T^{(2)}$. Indeed, he does not make any remark that these may differ in any way, not even infinitesimally. That seems like an extremely important detail to include if it were the case. | |
| 12 hours ago | comment | added | Poutnik | The theory demands that the temperature difference is smaller than any given number. That is not the same as zero. | |
| 13 hours ago | comment | added | Anna | Doesn't that mean that the criterion of thermal equilibrium, $T^{(1)}=T^{(2)}$, is incorrect even in theory? Of course if were to make real measurements, we could not measure any difference between two temperatures that are infinitesimally close to each other. However, the theory demands that the temperatures be precisely equal at equilibrium, does it not? | |
| 18 hours ago | history | edited | Poutnik | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| 18 hours ago | history | edited | Poutnik | CC BY-SA 4.0 |
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| 18 hours ago | history | answered | Poutnik | CC BY-SA 4.0 |